Abstract
A previously fit and well 30-year-old women collapses shortly after the birth of her first child. Resuscitation is sadly unsuccessful. The diagnosis of amniotic fluid embolism is considered at post-mortem. Which one of the following options would be least consistent with this diagnosis?a)Maternal haemorrhageb)Cardiac arrestc)Respiratory distressd)Acute fetal compromisee)Collapse around the time of delivery
Full Text 
Sign-in/Register to access full text options
Sign-in/Register to access full text options 
Paper version not known
Talk to us
Join us for a 30 min session where you can share your feedback and ask us any queries you have
Schedule a call
