Abstract
Some of the literature dealing with the Khmer Rouge regime tries to explain the policy of the Revolutionary Organisation (Angkar Padevat) by the influence that the royal policy of Angkor (9th through 15th century AD) may have exerted over it. Can we consider such argument as valid ? Or is it based on dubious assumptions and fallacious secondhand information ? And does it make any sense to compare the two regimes ?
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