Abstract
Whether we can speak of colonialism in the Middle Ages has been a long-standing matter of debate. While the question “Was there colonialism in the Middle Ages?” has produced much useful scholarship by medievalists and non-medievalists alike, I would also suggest that the yes or no framing of this question has at times placed counterproductive limits on scholarly analysis. After all, we do not require a country to meet the definition of “textbook” democracy before we use it to advance the study of democracy. Should we require the medieval period to exhibit “textbook” colonialism before we use it to advance our understanding of colonialism?
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